THE IMMACULATE CONCEPTION OF VIRGIN MARY.. Part 2

Let us now go to greek translations, I like it a lot and I can be easily carried away though. Looking at Luke 1:28, the greek word there is NOT “Charis” but “Charitoo.” “Charis” is a noun which means “grace...” but “Charitoo” is a passive participle verb which means “to make accepted” or “endue with special honour.” Both of the words (charis and charitoo) are used separately in Ephesians 1:6.

Note that “Charitoo” in Luke 1:28 is the root word in the greek translation “Kecharitomene” in St. Jeromes’ transcription, which in latin is “gratia plena,” meaning “Full of grace.” You may consider laying your hands on Douay-Rheims Bible and the Knox. The suffix “-mene” indicates that Mary was acted upon by God Himself. On the other hand, the prefix “Ke-“ indicated that it was a perfect tense. Her being full of grace has been completed before Angel Gabriel ever met her. It may interest you to know that there is a little difference between “full of grace” and “filled with grace” in the practical sense of it.

Let’s consider Romans 4:4, which someone referenced in his argument against this truth. But first, permit me to clarify the fact that, I do not by any means suggest that Mary was favoured because of her works. In fact, grace and favour are intertwined though they are different terms. My attempt to differentiate ‘grace’ and ‘mercy’ from ‘favour’ is simply based on their English meanings, but not in relation to the Bible passages under consideration, even though they are applicable.

However, there is no gainsaying that “grace” came to work only in Christ Jesus. So, the grace in Romans 4:4 is essentially that obtainable in Jesus, after His death and resurrection, for those of us who believe. That is to say, Salvation is never by the works of righteousness, but by the grace of God (through Jesus Christ). We came to know “grace” only through Jesus. But Mary was before this era of grace, and in relating with mankind, God considered their works and dispositions to a large extent.

You may want to ask me about what Mary could have done to merit carrying God in her womb. I TOO, DO NOT KNOW EXACTLY WHAT SHE DID, and that is where ‘grace’ came into the picture. I am aware she was a virgin with unique personalities. Now, the next question would be, WHAT IS THE RESULT OF GOD’S GRACE ON MARY? Would you say the ‘grace’ was just to forgive her sins so that she could conceive Jesus? I think it is more than that. The grace and special favour she received MUST be in the truth of her immaculate conception.

Let’s answer these questions: Can “sin” produce “holiness”? Can “bad” give birth to “good”? Is it proper to pour ‘new wine’ in an ‘old keg’? See Mathew 7:16, 20; Luke 5:37-38... The answer is obviously an emphatic NO! If Jesus was without sin, Mary her mother must also have been without sin through conscious preparation by God Himself. This kind of favour is what we call grace in our time – God dwelling in man as His temple (1 Corinthians 3:16).

Now, let’s go deeper a little into this revelation. When you give your life to Christ, you are born again or born of the Spirit. Your spirit is imparted with holiness; this is what qualifies you to bear God in your life through the Holy Spirit. Just as by grace, at new-birth we qualify to receive the Holy Spirit; Mary too could only have been qualified to carry Jesus in her womb, by grace, through Immaculate Conception. Take a look at Jeremiah 1:5, Prophet Jeremiah was called and prepared for the ministry right inside his mother’s womb. It was the same thing with John the Baptist, who was also sensitive to God’s presence in Luke 1:39-45, right in Elizabeth’s womb. I am most certain too, that God wouldn’t embark on the project of redeeming mankind through the birth of a HOLY JESUS, without preparing the vessel from the very beginning.  He is not a careless God. He is proactive, and must have prepared Virgin Mary from the womb for the task of being the mother of our Saviour.

In addition to the above, if Jesus being the new Adam (1 Corinthians 15:45) is sinless; shouldn’t Mary being the new Eve (Genesis 3:15; Revelation 12:7, 17) also be sinless? The doctrine of Immaculate Conception is foolishness and considered a mystery by many Christians, just as preaching of the cross was foolishness to the perishing and that is why God is not man... Truly, you can see that the foolishness of God is wiser than the wisdom of men (1 Corinthians 1:18, 25). Dear reader, I will like to know your final conviction about this subject matter, after taking out some time to objectively read through this post. God bless you richly!

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