Let us now go to greek
translations, I like it a lot and I can be easily carried away though. Looking at
Luke 1:28, the greek word there is NOT “Charis” but “Charitoo.” “Charis” is a
noun which means “grace...” but “Charitoo” is a passive participle verb which
means “to make accepted” or “endue with special honour.” Both of the words
(charis and charitoo) are used separately in Ephesians 1:6.
Note that “Charitoo” in Luke 1:28
is the root word in the greek translation “Kecharitomene” in St. Jeromes’
transcription, which in latin is “gratia plena,” meaning “Full of grace.” You
may consider laying your hands on Douay-Rheims Bible and the Knox. The suffix
“-mene” indicates that Mary was acted upon by God Himself. On the other hand,
the prefix “Ke-“ indicated that it was a perfect tense. Her being full of grace
has been completed before Angel Gabriel ever met her. It may interest you to
know that there is a little difference between “full of grace” and “filled with
grace” in the practical sense of it.
Let’s consider Romans 4:4, which someone
referenced in his argument against this truth. But first, permit me to clarify
the fact that, I do not by any means suggest that Mary was favoured because of
her works. In fact, grace and favour are intertwined though they are different
terms. My attempt to differentiate ‘grace’ and ‘mercy’ from ‘favour’ is simply
based on their English meanings, but not in relation to the Bible passages
under consideration, even though they are applicable.
However, there is no gainsaying
that “grace” came to work only in Christ Jesus. So, the grace in Romans 4:4 is
essentially that obtainable in Jesus, after His death and resurrection, for
those of us who believe. That is to say, Salvation is never by the works of
righteousness, but by the grace of God (through Jesus Christ). We came to know
“grace” only through Jesus. But Mary was before this era of grace, and in
relating with mankind, God considered their works and dispositions to a large
extent.
You may want to ask me about what Mary could
have done to merit carrying God in her womb. I TOO, DO NOT KNOW EXACTLY WHAT
SHE DID, and that is where ‘grace’ came into the picture. I am aware she was a
virgin with unique personalities. Now, the next question would be, WHAT IS THE
RESULT OF GOD’S GRACE ON MARY? Would you say the ‘grace’ was just to forgive
her sins so that she could conceive Jesus? I think it is more than that. The
grace and special favour she received MUST be in the truth of her immaculate
conception.
Let’s answer these questions: Can
“sin” produce “holiness”? Can “bad” give birth to “good”? Is it proper to pour
‘new wine’ in an ‘old keg’? See Mathew 7:16, 20; Luke 5:37-38... The answer is
obviously an emphatic NO! If Jesus was without sin, Mary her mother must also
have been without sin through conscious preparation by God Himself. This kind
of favour is what we call grace in our time – God dwelling in man as His temple
(1 Corinthians 3:16).
Now, let’s go deeper a little
into this revelation. When you give your life to Christ, you are born again or
born of the Spirit. Your spirit is imparted with holiness; this is what
qualifies you to bear God in your life through the Holy Spirit. Just as by
grace, at new-birth we qualify to receive the Holy Spirit; Mary too could only
have been qualified to carry Jesus in her womb, by grace, through Immaculate
Conception. Take a look at Jeremiah 1:5, Prophet Jeremiah was called and
prepared for the ministry right inside his mother’s womb. It was the same thing
with John the Baptist, who was also sensitive to God’s presence in Luke 1:39-45,
right in Elizabeth’s womb. I am most certain too, that God wouldn’t embark on
the project of redeeming mankind through the birth of a HOLY JESUS, without
preparing the vessel from the very beginning.
He is not a careless God. He is proactive, and must have prepared Virgin
Mary from the womb for the task of being the mother of our Saviour.
In addition to the above, if
Jesus being the new Adam (1 Corinthians 15:45) is sinless; shouldn’t Mary being
the new Eve (Genesis 3:15; Revelation 12:7, 17) also be sinless? The doctrine
of Immaculate Conception is foolishness and considered a mystery by many
Christians, just as preaching of the cross was foolishness to the perishing and
that is why God is not man... Truly, you can see that the foolishness of God is
wiser than the wisdom of men (1 Corinthians 1:18, 25). Dear reader, I will like
to know your final conviction about this subject matter, after taking out some
time to objectively read through this post. God bless you richly!
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